This the first of our four CAPM practice exams. These questions are designed to help you prepare for your Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification exam. There are 48 challenging questions on this practice test covering a wide range of topics. It is based on the CAPM Guide 6th Edition. Start your test prep right now with our free CAPM practice exam!
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NEW QUESTION: 1
In which four clauses can a sub query be used? (Choose four.)
A. in the SET clause of an UPDATE statement
B. in the GROUP BY clause of a SELECT statement
C. in the VALUES clause of an INSERT statement
D. in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement
E. in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement
F. in the INTO clause of an INSERT statement
Answer: A,D,E,F
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: a sub query is valid on the INTO clause of an ISERT Statement
B: a sub query can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement
D: a sub query can be used in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement,
E: a sub query can be used in the SET clauses of an UPDATE statement,
Incorrect answer:
Csub query cannot be used
F: is incorrect.
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 6-5
NEW QUESTION: 2
When the NLRA imposes a voluntary-recognition bar, this means what?
A. The NLRB has certified a bargaining representative.
B. The union withdrew its petition for an election.
C. A representation election took place in the previous 12 months.
D. No election will take place for a reasonable period of time.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer option C is correct.The NLRB imposes a voluntary-recognition bar while negotiations take place between the union and an employer that voluntarily recognized the union. See Chapter 7 for more information. Chapter: Employee and Labor Relations Objective: Labor Relations
NEW QUESTION: 3
For IBM Case Manager, where should the database for the content engine target object store and the process engine on DB2 be located?
A. On the same database on a server with different userids
B. On separate databases on the same server
C. On the same database on a server with same userid and password
D. On separate databases on different servers
Answer: C
Since this is only a probability it does not need an immediate action. Just try to gather more information as the project goes ahead and decide later on. | |
As a seasoned construction project manager, contact the regulatory body to find out some workarounds for your project. | |
This requires a scope change notification that should be written immediately. | |
Your first and immediate action is to disclose your discovery to the project stakeholders and solicit their viewpoints. |
Question 1 Explanation:
PMI's Code of Ethics requires all project managers to comply with all laws and regulations. Failure to immediately and actively disclose that a regulatory requirement has not been addressed puts the company and the project manager in the position of breaking the law.
Question 2 |
You are managing a project with 9 stakeholders. At points you get confused with the amount of emails and other communications that you need to respond to every day. How many communication channels do you need to plan?
40 | |
100 | |
45 | |
90 |
Question 2 Explanation:
The formula to identify the number of communication channels is:
n(n − 1)/2, where n is the number of stakeholders including yourself.
In your project, 10(10 − 1)/2 = 45.
n(n − 1)/2, where n is the number of stakeholders including yourself.
In your project, 10(10 − 1)/2 = 45.
Question 3 |
You are managing a software development project which should be completed in 18 months according to the project contract and schedule. Your customer has recently faced regulatory changes that require your project to be finished 2 months earlier and he asks you to do so. How will you approach this situation?
Stick to your original schedule and tell the customer that once the contract is signed the project duration won’t change under any circumstances. | |
Accept the customer’s request and cut parts of the project scope to meet the new deadline. | |
Inform the customer of the impacts of his requirement to project constraints and, after getting the required approvals, crash the project. | |
Cut the duration of all project activities across the board to meet the requirement. |
Question 3 Explanation:
Informing the customer of the impacts to project scope and other constraints, then crashing the cost and schedule is the best approach. Arbitrarily trimming estimates or scope without directly advising your customer is dishonest, while simply refusing to make a change is unprofessional.
Question 4 |
According to the contract, your customer has assigned one of his staff to your project office to attend the meetings and contribute to the decision making. However, this person is too confrontational and his behavior to your project team members is intimidating. What should be your action in this situation?
Confront the person about his behavior and its impact on the project. Also, inform the customer about the issue. | |
Ask the customer to replace the person. | |
Since the person is assigned by your client you don’t have any authority over him, so don’t do anything. | |
You unilaterally decide to isolate the person and don’t let him in the project meetings. |
Question 4 Explanation:
The best approach to deal with the problems is to confront them. In this situation you should respectfully confront the resource about this behavior, and notify the customer about the situation. Failing to confront the resource or intentionally excluding a required resource from a project is unprofessional, and could negatively impact the project.
Question 5 |
The majority of the project management software applications use the --------- method to build the project schedule network diagram.
Precedence Diagramming | |
Activity-On-Arrows Diagramming | |
Leads and Lags | |
Critical Diagramming |
Question 5 Explanation:
PDM, also called Activity-On-Node (AON), is the method used by most project management and project planning software packages.
Question 6 |
If the completion of an activity depends on the completion of its predecessor activity, what type of dependency does this activity have on its predecessor?
Start-to-Finish | |
Finish-to-Finish | |
Start-to-Start | |
Finish-to-Start |
Question 6 Explanation:
In a Finish-to-Finish (FF) dependency the finish date of one task drives the finish date of another. In other words, both activities finish at the same time regardless of their start time.
Question 7 |
To formally authorize the project, which of the following documents is necessary?
Business Case | |
Project Charter | |
Project Contract | |
Project Statement of Work (SOW) |
Question 7 Explanation:
The project charter is the document that officially authorizes a project and gives the project manager the required authority to assign resources to the project.
Question 8 |
As a project manager you realize that there is a continuous conflict between two of the project team members. What is the best approach to handle these conflicts?
It’s suggested to handle conflicts in the team meetings so that everybody in the project team learns from them. | |
Conflicts are harmful to the project's progress, therefore you need to smooth them when they happen. | |
The best approach is to address the conflicts immediately and in a direct way involving both members, but preferably in private. | |
The best approach is to ignore conflicts because they are common and unavoidable in all of the projects. |
Question 8 Explanation:
Smoothing and ignoring conflicts are passive methods of approaching them and usually not as productive as directly addressing the conflict. Raising a conflict which is between only 2 people in a meeting is not the best way. The best way is to address such issues as early as possible and in a direct and private way. This approach is also known as collaboration or problem-solving.
Question 9 |
You are a project manager and you are about to perform the risk management processes. Which one of the following documents evolves throughout the risk management processes?
Risk Register | |
Risk Mitigation Plan | |
Contingency Plan | |
Risk Profile |
Question 9 Explanation:
The risk register is the document that evolves throughout the risk management processes.
Question 10 |
As a project manager you are performing scope management processes. What is the function of the WBS Dictionary?
Describes the details of each component in the project WBS | |
Used as a glossary to define the acronyms used in the project WBS | |
It is used for the planning of the project resources | |
Used as a glossary to define the acronyms used in the project scope statement |
Question 10 Explanation:
The WBS Dictionary is a detailed description of work packages and their attributes including any technical documentation for each WBS element.
Question 11 |
As the manager of a large project, you are performing the Control Procurements process. Which one of the following are not considered as tools and techniques of this process?
Claims Administration | |
Negotiation | |
Inspection | |
Audits |
Question 11 Explanation:
Negotiation is a tool used in the Conduct Procurements process. The other answer choices are the tools and techniques of the Control Procurements process.
Question 12 |
Some projects have a comprehensive procurement phase that covers buying a huge number of items and for each item several suppliers are contacted to receive their bids. As a project manager in such projects, you need to make sure that every supplier has a clear understanding of the requirements of the project. Which one of the following techniques could be used for this purpose?
Communication Matrix | |
One-on-One discussion | |
Bidder Conferences | |
Formal Presentation |
Question 12 Explanation:
Bidder Conferences (also called vendor conferences, contractor conferences, or pre-bid conferences) are meetings between buyers and all prospective sellers prior to the submittal of bids or proposals. They are used to ensure that all sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement and that no bidders receive preferential treatment. Responses to questions are incorporated as procurement document amendments. To be fair, buyers must ensure that all sellers hear every question from individual sellers and every answer from the buyer.
Question 13 |
Following are the parameters estimated in the Earned Value analysis of a project:
- Actual Cost: $2,000,000
- Cost Variance: $-200,000
- SPI: 1.1
- Budget at Completion (BaC): $5,200,000
$5,200,000 | |
$1,800,000 | |
$3,200,000 | |
$2,200,000 |
Question 13 Explanation:
Cost Variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) − Actual Cost (AC)
−200,000 = EV − 2,000,000
EV = 1,800,000
−200,000 = EV − 2,000,000
EV = 1,800,000
Question 14 |
As the project manager you are reviewing the earned value analysis report performed by your team. The SPI is 0.87. What does this figure mean to you?
The project is getting 87 cents out of each dollar spent. | |
Your project is running according to the budget. | |
The progress of your project is only 87% of what it is planned, so you are behind the schedule. | |
You are ahead of schedule. |
Question 14 Explanation:
The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of the project performance in terms of the time schedule. SPI < 1 shows that the project is behind schedule.
Question 15 |
As the project manager you wish to use a document that shows the work assigned to each project team member. What’s the title of the document that you will use?
Project Resources Matrix (PRM) | |
Project Schedule | |
Resource Planning Chart (RPC) | |
Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) |
Question 15 Explanation:
A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) illustrates association between work packages/activities and team members. It makes it easy for team members to view all the project activities for which a particular person is assigned, and the level of their responsibility.
Question 16 |
You are managing a project in a highly cost sensitive company. Therefore, you need to reduce the costs to the extent possible. Which one of the following categories of cost would you consider as the first option for cost reduction?
Indirect and direct costs | |
Direct and variable costs | |
Indirect and variable costs | |
Variable and fixed costs |
Question 16 Explanation:
Direct costs belong to project resources which can be scaled down or reduced. Variable costs depend on the amount of work performed by resources. Therefore, there is a higher opportunity to reduce it by reducing the scope and amount of work required.
Question 17 |
Budget forecasts are created during which of the following project management process groups?
Planning | |
Executing | |
Monitoring & Controlling | |
Initiating |
Question 17 Explanation:
Budget forecasts are one of the outputs of the Control Costs process which is in Monitoring & Controlling.
Question 18 |
As a project manager you are involved in purchasing various items for the project. However, you suddenly receive an official letter from your client ordering the immediate termination of the project. What will be your best course of action?
Release the Project Team | |
Perform Procurement Audits | |
Perform Inspections & Audits | |
Refer to Project Closure Guidelines in Organizational Process Assets |
Question 18 Explanation:
Since this is a case of project closure before its completion, as a project manager the BEST thing to do for you is to make sure the steps to close a project are followed. Project Closure Guidelines in Organizational Process Assets are the best source of information in such a situation.
Question 19 |
Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Collect Requirements process?
Inspection | |
Facilitation | |
Prototypes | |
Questionnaires & Surveys |
Question 19 Explanation:
Inspection is a tool and technique for the Validate Scope process while the other options are all the tools used for the Collect Requirements process.
Question 20 |
In an industrial project the equipment installation can be started 15 days after the equipment foundation is completed. What type of dependency is this?
Finish-to-start with a 15-day lag | |
Finish-to-finish with a 15-day lag | |
Start-to-finish with a 15-day lead | |
Finish-to-start with a 15-day lead |
Question 20 Explanation:
The dependency between the two activities is a Finish-to-Start (FS) type because the second activity can start only after the completion of the first one. There is also a time lag of 15 days before the second activity can start.
Question 21 |
According to Tuckman, which of the following is not one of the stages of team development?
Norming | |
Delegating | |
Forming | |
Performing |
Question 21 Explanation:
According to Tuckman, the stages of team development are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
Question 22 |
You are reviewing the earned value analysis of your project and you see following information:
- Earned Value = $500,000
- Actual Cost = $550,000
- Planned Value = $600,000
Behind schedule and under budget | |
Ahead of schedule and over budget | |
Ahead of schedule and under budget | |
Behind schedule and over budget |
Question 22 Explanation:
SV = EV − PV
SV = 500,000 − 600,000
SV = $−100,000
Since SV is negative the project is behind schedule.
CV = EV − AC
CV = 500,000 − 550,000
CV = $−50,000
Since CV is negative the project is over budget.
SV = 500,000 − 600,000
SV = $−100,000
Since SV is negative the project is behind schedule.
CV = EV − AC
CV = 500,000 − 550,000
CV = $−50,000
Since CV is negative the project is over budget.
Question 23 |
Which of these is an output from the Acquire Resources process?
Staffing Management Plan | |
Organizational chart | |
RAM | |
Project team assignments |
Question 23 Explanation:
After determining elements such as the roles and responsibilities, reviewing recruitment practices, and negotiating for staff, project team members are assigned to project activities as part of the Acquire Resources process.
Question 24 |
Which one of the following is not an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
Stakeholders Register | |
Organizational Process Assets | |
Agreements | |
Business Case |
Question 24 Explanation:
Inputs of the Develop Project Charter process are:
- Business Case
- Agreements
- Enterprise Environmental Factors
- Organizational Process Assets
Question 25 |
Which one of the following is not an output of the Direct & Manage Project Work process?
Deliverables | |
Change Requests | |
Work Performance Reports | |
Project document updates |
Question 25 Explanation:
Work Performance reports are an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process while the outputs of the Direct & Manage Project Work process are:
- Deliverables
- Work Performance data
- Issue log
- Change requests
- Project management plan updates
- Project document updates
- Organizational process assets updates
Question 26 |
As a project manager involved in the Control Procurements process you are aware that early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure. The special cases of procurement closure can result from all of the following except?
Mutual agreement of both parties to terminate | |
Cause or convenience outside the terminations clause of the contract | |
Convenience of the buyer provided in the contract | |
Default of one party |
Question 26 Explanation:
Early termination of a contract is a special case of procurement closure that can result from a mutual agreement of both parties, from the default of one party, or for the convenience of the buyer if provided for in the contract. The rights and responsibilities of the parties in the event of an early termination are contained in a terminations clause of the contract.
Question 27 |
The cost baseline is developed during which process?
Estimate costs | |
Develop schedule | |
Monitor & control project work | |
Determine budget |
Question 27 Explanation:
The cost baseline or project budget is developed in the Determine Budget process which is a planning process in project cost management.
Question 28 |
Which statement about the project critical path is true?
The critical path has zero total float and it shows the earliest possible time to complete the project | |
The critical path consumes the biggest portion of the project budget compared to other paths | |
A project can have only one critical path | |
The critical path has zero or negative total float |
Question 28 Explanation:
The critical path can have negative total float in the case that there is a constraint set on the project finish date.
Question 29 |
While acquiring your project team you realize that according to the project charter a specific consultant is required to be on your team. This consultant has particular knowledge and your client has dictated that you hire him as a team member. This situation describes which one of the tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process?
Virtual Teams | |
Multicriteria Decision Analysis | |
Pre-Assignment | |
Negotiation |
Question 29 Explanation:
Pre-assignment involves selecting project team members in advance. It occurs when specific people were promised as part of the project proposal, the project is dependent on expertise of particular persons, or staff assignments are defined within the project charter.
Question 30 |
You are assigned as the manager of a huge multi-billion dollar infrastructure project with a time span of 3 years. You are working in the planning process group of your project and currently you are creating the project WBS. Due to lack of information you decide to create the WBS of the commissioning phase of the project (which is the last phase) in more details later on when you have more information. This approach to creating the WBS is also known as:
Rolling wave planning | |
Agile planning | |
Progressive planning | |
Water fall planning |
Question 30 Explanation:
Rolling wave planning involves planning near-term items in greater detail than those that are further off in time.
Question 31 |
Your project is 4 weeks behind schedule and you have been asked to crash the project in order to make up the lost time. The tasks listed in the table below are all on the critical path. Which of the tasks below would you crash?
Task A | |
Tasks C & E | |
Tasks D & E & F | |
Tasks B & D |
Question 31 Explanation:
When crashing a project you will always crash those tasks that have the smallest crash cost. While all of these answers will give you a 4 week reduction in duration, crashing tasks C & E is the cheapest option:
Task A = 6,500
Tasks C & E = 2,000 + 3,500 = 5,500
Tasks B & D = 2,500 + 3,500 = 6,000
Tasks D & E & F = 3,500 + 3,500 + 4,000 = 11,000
Task A = 6,500
Tasks C & E = 2,000 + 3,500 = 5,500
Tasks B & D = 2,500 + 3,500 = 6,000
Tasks D & E & F = 3,500 + 3,500 + 4,000 = 11,000
Question 32 |
You are managing a project and one of your close friends is also a manager at the client organization. During the project execution, your friend asks for changes to be made in the project scope, and with the reasoning that the changes are critical to the success of the project, he asks you to handle them on an informal basis. He argues that if you want to follow the normal change procedures you will lose considerable time. What should you do in this situation?
Perform the changes according to the manager’s request because they are crucial to the project success, but document them later on when the project is on track and there are no more changes to be made. | |
Since what the manager has asked you is unethical you should refuse the changes. | |
Explain to the manager that the change should be handled through the formal change management process and it should be documented. | |
Comply with the manager’s request since it is critical to the project success. |
Question 32 Explanation:
The correct response is that you would explain to the manager that you would need to formally document these as part of a project scope change and put it through the change management process. Complying with the manager's request is incorrect and violates the code of ethics and professional responsibility that you have towards your organization. Refusing to take up the changes may be too drastic a step.
Question 33 |
As a project manager you are using a fishbone diagram to find the potential risks on your project. Which process are you in?
Control Quality | |
Plan Risk Response | |
Identify Risk | |
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis |
Question 33 Explanation:
A fishbone diagram (also called cause and effect analysis or Ishikawa diagram) is used in the Identify Risks process to determine the potential risks that might affect the project.
Question 34 |
As a project manager you are currently involved in a Close Project or Phase process. In this situation which one of the following activities would be your lowest priority?
Measuring the project scope against the project management plan. | |
Finalizing all activities across all of the Project Management Process Groups. | |
If a project is terminated before completion, starting procedures to investigate and document the reasons for this early termination. | |
Performing activities such as finalizing open claims, updating records to reflect final results, and archiving such information for future use. |
Question 34 Explanation:
Closing out a contract involves administrative activities such as finalizing open claims, updating records to reflect final results, and archiving such information for future use. Procurement Close could be done at any stage of the project and is not associated only with Close Project or Phase process.
Question 35 |
You are the construction project manager of an important stadium which is going to be used for the Winter Olympics. The games start a month from now, and your project has faced some weather delays in pouring the concrete for the landscaping. You know that bad weather might affect the quality of the concrete, however since the deadline is closing you decide to not delay the project anymore and go ahead with the remaining concrete work. Which risk strategy are you undertaking?
Mitigate | |
Accept | |
Exploit | |
Transfer |
Question 35 Explanation:
In this situation your are taking the Acceptance strategy. Acceptance is adopted when there is no possibility to eliminate all threats from a project. This means the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk or is unable to identify a response strategy. This strategy can be active or passive acceptance. Passive Acceptance: No action except documenting the strategy and leave project team to deal with the risks as they occur. Active Acceptance: Establish a contingency reserve (time/money/resources).
Question 36 |
As a software project manager you are in the initial stages of the project. Based on your past experience you know that the project will face a lot of challenges in terms of budget and time schedule. In which of the following project management documents would you record these challenges?
Project Risk Register | |
Project Charter | |
Issue Log | |
Project Management Plan |
Question 36 Explanation:
Since you are in the initial stage of the project the risks should be recorded in the project charter. However, if the project has completed the initiation stage, the risks should be recorded in the risk register as part of the project management plan.
Question 37 |
Tom is managing a software development project in a large IT firm. According to the project essential requirements, he has written an email to one of the functional managers and requested a number of staff to be assigned to his project on a permanent basis for a 2-week period. The functional manager has rejected Tom’s request. What should Tom do in this situation?
Raise the issue to higher level managers who can decide on project priorities | |
Negotiate with the functional manager | |
Change the sequence of activities so that he can cope with the resource limitations | |
Record this as a risk in the risk register |
Question 37 Explanation:
Tom as the project manager has the ultimate responsibility of acquiring the resources on time. In this situation he should use the negotiation tools and techniques to acquire the project team. Of course other items might also be correct in some situations, but the first most responsible way is to do negotiation with the functional managers.
Question 38 |
You are managing a residential building construction project. Your client has just requested a change in the lighting system which may increase project risk and costs. What should be your first action?
Analyze the impacts of the change | |
Update the project risk register | |
Issue a Change Request | |
Raise the issue to the project sponsor |
Question 38 Explanation:
The first action after receiving any change request is to analyze the impacts. Then after comparing the impacts to the plan you may need to issue a change request to modify the project scope. Raising the issue to the project sponsor is also possible once you are aware of the impacts of the change.
Question 39 |
For the purpose of recording project lessons learned, you are analyzing the major delay in the project schedule. The root cause of the delay was a demonstration done by a group of green initiative supporters. They were unhappy because their representatives were not informed about all of the arrangements that you are taking to protect the environment. What could you and your team have done better to prevent this from happening?
A more accurate risk response planning | |
A clearer communication management plan | |
A better project management plan | |
A more accurate stakeholder identification |
Question 39 Explanation:
Identifying stakeholders and understanding their relative degree of influence on a project is critical. Failure to do so can extend the timeline and raise costs substantially. An important part of a project manager's responsibility is to manage stakeholder expectations and develop a strategy to keep them satisfied.
Question 40 |
In the Plan Quality Management process, which of the following is not attributable to the cost of non-conformance?
Quality measures | |
Rework | |
Downtime | |
Warranty |
Question 40 Explanation:
Quality measures are not an attribute of the cost of non-conformance. The cost of non-conformance result in some kind of a loss or rejection of the project’s output.
Question 41 |
Categorizing identified stakeholders can assist the project team in building valuable relationships with these stakeholders as the project progresses. All of the following techniques are useful for this purpose except for
Stakeholder cube | |
Salience model | |
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix (SEAM) | |
Power/Interest grid |
Question 41 Explanation:
Stakeholder cube, the Salience model, and the Power/Interest grid are stakeholder mapping and categorization techniques and are used in the Identify Stakeholders process. Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix allows the team to analyze the variance between what the existing and desired engagement levels of the stakeholders are and is used in Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
Question 42 |
You are managing an IT project and until today you have actually completed $470,000 of work, but based on the cost plan, it should be $560,000. What is the Schedule Variance (SV) percentage at this point in time?
−19% | |
−16% | |
19% | |
16% |
Question 42 Explanation:
SV% = (EV − PV) / PV
SV% = ($470,000 − $560,000) / $560,000
SV% = −16%
SV% = ($470,000 − $560,000) / $560,000
SV% = −16%
Question 43 |
You are managing a small project in the context of a large organization. A strategic decision made in the organization was to shut down one of the operation units which was supposed to work a few days for your project. This might lead to missing a major milestone in your project so you need to do the required planning to acquire outside resources to get your project activity done. Which tools and techniques of the Plan Risk Response process will help you in this situation?
Strategies for negative risks or threats | |
Strategies for positive risks or opportunities | |
Contingent response strategies | |
Risk Reassessment |
Question 43 Explanation:
This is the situation where the risk response happens after the trigger which is the sudden shut down of an operational unit in the company. Some responses are designed to use only if a specific event occurs. It is appropriate for the project team to make a response plan that will be executed only under certain predefined conditions (triggers like missing intermediate milestones). The risk response occurs BEFORE the risk and tries to alter the probability and/or impact while the contingency plan only occurs AFTER the trigger (usually the risk event) and focuses only on changing the impact.
Question 44 |
You're managing a project with a total budget of $1,000,000 and your project is expected to last for one year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fifth month, the work is on schedule, and you have already spent $480,000 of the project budget. What is the Cost Variance in this case?
$63,333 | |
$20,000 | |
−$20,000 | |
−$63,333 |
Question 44 Explanation:
Cost Variance = Earn Value − Actual Cost
Earn Value = (Total Cost / Total Project Months) * Total Months Completed
Earn Value = ($1,000,000 / 12) * 5
Earn Value = 416,667
CV = 416,667 − $480,000
CV = −$63,333.
Earn Value = (Total Cost / Total Project Months) * Total Months Completed
Earn Value = ($1,000,000 / 12) * 5
Earn Value = 416,667
CV = 416,667 − $480,000
CV = −$63,333.
Question 45 |
You are a software development project manager and most of your team members operate from remote locations without the benefit of face-to-face contact. One of your major concerns is to build trust among the team members. Which of the following will help you the most in doing so?
Establishing Ground Rules | |
Training | |
Co-Location | |
Team-building activities |
Question 45 Explanation:
Team Building activities help develop trust and help establish good working relationships. Ongoing communications are a part of Team Building Activities. It is a tool used in Develop Team. Especially when the teams become remote, the importance of ongoing communication increases in building trust among the team members.
Question 46 |
You are managing an airport construction company. In the middle of the project you realize that one of the subcontractors is not meeting the quality requirements as stipulated in their contract. This is a risk that may result in the final product of the project being rejected by your client. What is your first course of action?
Perform claim administration | |
Raise the risk to the Sponsor | |
Initiate a change request | |
Perform inspection & audit |
Question 46 Explanation:
According to the PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition), inspections and audits required by the buyer and supported by the seller as specified in the procurement contract can be conducted during execution of the project to verify compliance in the seller's work processes or deliverable. If authorized by contract, some inspection and audit teams can include buyer procurement personnel.
Question 47 |
You are in charge of performing the financial analysis for a troubled project in your company. The project is currently on hold and based on the results of your work, top management will decide on continuing or dropping the project. Which category of costs should you not consider in your analysis?
Indirect costs | |
Sunk Costs | |
Fixed Costs | |
Variable Costs |
Question 47 Explanation:
Sunk costs are the costs that are expended in the past. Sunk costs should not be considered when deciding on continuing a project.
Question 48 |
As a project manager in a large organization with various projects similar to yours, you are responsible to report the project status to the top management in a way that quickly and easily gives them the required information. Which one of the following is the best type of report to provide the required information to senior management?
Project management plans | |
Gantt Charts | |
Milestone reports | |
Project detailed schedules |
Question 48 Explanation:
The only report that best suits to the needs of senior management is the milestone report. The rest of the mentioned documents include a lot of redundant or detailed information for this purpose.
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